No, of course not! Then why does Paul oftenΒ quoteΒ the Old Testament toΒ substantiateΒ the Mystery (e.g., Rom. 15:9-12)? Letβs start in Acts 26:22, where Paul testifies:
βI continue unto this dayβ¦saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.β
This statement seems to belie Paulβs insistence that his message was βhid from ages and from generationsβ (Col.Β 1:26). However, he explains himself in the next verse:
βThat Christ should suffer, and that He should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentilesβ (Acts 26:23).
The death and resurrection of Christ was not a mystery, nor was Godβs plan to show light unto βthe peopleβ (of Israel) and βto the Gentiles.β Thus Paul is saying that while his message did notΒ fulfillΒ the prophets, generally speaking it did notΒ contradict the Old Testament. We see the same in Acts 15, where the leaders in the church met to decide what to make of Paulβs new gospel. James concluded:
βSimeon hath declared how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for His name. And to this agree the words of the prophetsβ¦β (Acts 15:14,15).
James didnβt say that Paulβs new messageΒ fulfilledΒ the prophets. Rather he said itΒ agreedΒ with them, i.e., God always intended to visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for His name. Of course, according to Prophecy this was supposed to happen through Israelβs rise (Isa. 60:3), not through herΒ fallΒ (Rom.Β 11:11). Someday in the kingdom it will. But in the meantime, James could not deny that generally speaking Paulβs new message wasΒ in accord with the Old Testament.
When most New Testament writers quote the Old Testament, it is to showΒ fulfillmentΒ of prophecy. However, whenΒ PaulΒ quotes the Old Testament, it is to showΒ harmony, not fulfillment.
Letβs close with an example. In Romans 10:19, Paul quotes Deuteronomy 32:21, where God vows to provoke Israel to jealousy by βa foolish nation.β This cannot be the Gentiles, for they are βthe nations,β plural. Peter rather identifies the believing Jews to whom he wrote as the βholy nationΒ β that God originally used to provoke the apostate nation of Israel to jealousy (I Pet. 2:9 cf. Matt.Β 21:43; LukeΒ 12:32) andΒ fulfillΒ Deuteronomy 32:21. But in theΒ nextΒ chapter of Romans, Paul says,
ββ¦I am the apostle of the Gentilesβ¦if by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my fleshβ¦β (Rom.Β 11:13,14).
Here Paul declares that God wasΒ nowΒ usingΒ the GentilesΒ to provoke Israel to jealousy. Not inΒ fulfillmentΒ of Deuteronomy 32:21, but certainlyΒ in harmonyΒ with it!
So while the Mystery is not in the Old Testament, Paul can quote it freely to show how his new message wasΒ in agreementΒ with it. source