No, of course not! Then why does Paul often quote the Old Testament to substantiate the Mystery (e.g., Rom. 15:9-12)? Letβs start in Acts 26:22, where Paul testifies:
βI continue unto this dayβ¦saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come.β
This statement seems to belie Paulβs insistence that his message was βhid from ages and from generationsβ (Col. 1:26). However, he explains himself in the next verse:
βThat Christ should suffer, and that He should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentilesβ (Acts 26:23).
The death and resurrection of Christ was not a mystery, nor was Godβs plan to show light unto βthe peopleβ (of Israel) and βto the Gentiles.β Thus Paul is saying that while his message did not fulfill the prophets, generally speaking it did not contradict the Old Testament. We see the same in Acts 15, where the leaders in the church met to decide what to make of Paulβs new gospel. James concluded:
βSimeon hath declared how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for His name. And to this agree the words of the prophetsβ¦β (Acts 15:14,15).
James didnβt say that Paulβs new message fulfilled the prophets. Rather he said it agreed with them, i.e., God always intended to visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for His name. Of course, according to Prophecy this was supposed to happen through Israelβs rise (Isa. 60:3), not through her fall (Rom. 11:11). Someday in the kingdom it will. But in the meantime, James could not deny that generally speaking Paulβs new message was in accord with the Old Testament.
When most New Testament writers quote the Old Testament, it is to show fulfillment of prophecy. However, when Paul quotes the Old Testament, it is to show harmony, not fulfillment.
Letβs close with an example. In Romans 10:19, Paul quotes Deuteronomy 32:21, where God vows to provoke Israel to jealousy by βa foolish nation.β This cannot be the Gentiles, for they are βthe nations,β plural. Peter rather identifies the believing Jews to whom he wrote as the βholy nation β that God originally used to provoke the apostate nation of Israel to jealousy (I Pet. 2:9 cf. Matt. 21:43; Luke 12:32) and fulfill Deuteronomy 32:21. But in the next chapter of Romans, Paul says,
ββ¦I am the apostle of the Gentilesβ¦if by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my fleshβ¦β (Rom. 11:13,14).
Here Paul declares that God was now using the Gentiles to provoke Israel to jealousy. Not in fulfillment of Deuteronomy 32:21, but certainly in harmony with it!
So while the Mystery is not in the Old Testament, Paul can quote it freely to show how his new message was in agreement with it. source
